Lawyers are always told never to ask questions to which they don’t know the answer. I am not a lawyer.
It’s hardly surprising that the mainly publicly owned rail systems in the rest of Europe – several of which now run bits of Britain’s privatised rail – are cheaper.
Is this actually true?
I know that many European systems are indeed cheaper for passengers, yes. But are they cheaper in total?
Anyone actually know? Not quite sure what the metric should be. Per passenger mile perhaps? But including all costs (which should most definitely include things like pensions!) is the British rail system actually more expensive than those others?
I have a feeling, but no more than that, that Seumas is looking only at ticket prices. Which would be a little naughty really.