Tim Worstall

It is all obvious or trivial except…

 

 

Not entirely convinced here

January 29th, 2010 · 5 Comments

A world away from home Andy Murray keeps hopes of a nation at arm’s length

Australian Open finalist plays down the pressure of a chance to be the first British man to win a Grand Slam in 74 years

Maybe it’s me that’s got it wrong. I thought there were four major tournaments, each of which can be called a “slam”. A Grand Slam” is winning all four of them in the same year (or perhaps over the years).

No?

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Tags: Sport

5 responses so far ↓

  • 1 Optimistic Cynic // Jan 29, 2010 at 10:34 am

    pretty much. To have “grand slam” it has to be in the same year.

  • 2 Serf // Jan 29, 2010 at 11:02 am

    Brown has wished him luck. He’s doomed

  • 3 Bob Doney // Jan 29, 2010 at 11:21 am

    It’s harder than I thought: according to this website only five people have done this:

    Rod Laver (twice), Donald Budge, Steffi Graf, Margaret Smith-Court and Mo Connolly.

    So no Martina, Borg or Mac …..

    http://sports.espn.go.com/sports/tennis/history?type=men

  • 4 Mr Eugenides // Jan 29, 2010 at 1:17 pm

    Up to a point, Lord Worstall.

    To win all four in the year is indeed to win “the grand slam”. But the four majors that comprise this feat are individually referred to by tennis players as “a grand slam tournament” or simply “grand slams”, in their capacity as part of this mythical feat.

    “A grand slam tournament” is used, in this way, to distinguish these four from all the others.

  • 5 Matthew Illsley // Jan 29, 2010 at 4:15 pm

    As an Englishman I hope Federer destroys him.

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