Tim Worstall

3 responses so far ↓

• 1 embutler // Dec 20, 2007 at 2:44 pm

  My take (USer) is that our tax rate is 50 percent when you add in the state section

  how is it in the other countries…do they have taxing authority outside of their federal governments??

• 2 Tim Newman // Dec 21, 2007 at 12:47 am

  By what definition of poverty?

  Last time I argued about poverty in the US, the answer from somebody who insisted dire poverty was rampant used the following definition:

  “Well, I would call that dire poverty especially considering how rich some people are.”

  In other words, his own definition.

• 3 MikinAppalachia // Dec 21, 2007 at 2:33 am

  At least for the USA, per the links from the “Tax Justice Network” cited, it is pretty relative. Interesting that I evidently reside in the “worst” area (Appalachia) for “child poverty”. One interesting item from the links was a citation from a report on “poverty in the USA”-
  “The report goes on to note that 46% of poor households in the US own their own home, and 30% have two or more cars, and 63% have cable or satellite TV.” Also-
  looking at the nice graph presented, there’s some odd comparisons, i.e., USA and AUS have about the same tax rate, as do NOR and ITA, but their “child poverty %” vary by a factor of 2-4 times. Maybe correlation doesn’t equal cause?

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